Skip to main content

Looking for Help #1

Last week asked a simple question.  Did Christ die both Spiritually and Physically or just Physically?  Not to my dismay, I didn't receive on response.   Course I didn't really expect one, so no disappointment.  But the question still stands.  Did however receive a reply to an email submitted to a reliable source that I have listened to for about 2 years.  The source referenced Romans 5:5-10 and 6:10.  

I would then bring to light the scripture 2 Corinthians 5:21, and context with the whole of the text 2 Corinthians 5:11-21.  It reads "made him to be sin"  notice the italics are not scripture in the truest sense and without the italics reads "made him sin" or God made Christ sin in my place when I believe the gospel, Paul's gospel.  Christ made sin so that God could judge and condemn sin in the flesh, the flesh of Christ, and being made the likeness of men [Phil 2:6-11] died both spiritually when God turned His back [why hast thou forsaken me?] and physically when he uttered the words  "It is finished'.  I have often wondered who told Christ to speak that phrase?  That was simple when I understood all of this.  God Father turned His back but not God Holy Spirit, so it was the Holy Spirit who told Christ that it was done, the judgment and condemnation and said "It is finished"

Other scriptures are Genesis 2:17;  "in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die".  Adam died spiritually when he disobeyed God that day [1 Corinthians 15:22]. Then I have to reference Enoch [Genesis 5:21-24, taken of God]  and 2 Kings 2:1-12.  I believe that Elijah was in fact taken into heaven, but into the second heaven as opposed to Paul in a vision taken into the third heaven; 2 Corinthians 12:1-6.  That heaven was the opposite of the hell for the rich man of Luke 16:190-31.  Could also be associated with paradise and hell as in Luke 23:43;

John 10:10 speaks of life "and that they might have it more abundantly.  How can that be abundantly in a physical sense?  Unless Christ returns and takes [be caught up] His Church [being changed].  

Matthew 28:45-46  "why hast thou forsaken me?"  God not looking on sin allowed Christ to be the one to receive His wrath for sin from the 6th to the 9th hour.  God as Father didn't, couldn't look on sin as Christ had become sin [2 Cor 5:21 and Romans 3:23] although Christ didn't sin He took on sin [2 Cor 5:21].   As with the scripture reference you made of Luke 23:46 the same answer is given not to say nothing of 2 Timothy 2:14-on . . . . .

Sidebar:  Christ during those 3 hours didn't lose faith in the Father as Isaac also didn't doubt his father when bound and laid on the wood of the altar when offered up by Abraham. 

A scripture that was most helpful to me in my question is this:  "And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day".  That He rose  "AGAIN"; to me again is that He had arose once before to have risen again.  This is not about when was the first time but only my pursuing the question of His death, physical and Spiritually.

In Philippians 2:6-11;  God as Christ made himself of no reputation, made in the likeness of men, which was being dead in Adam [1 Cor 15:22].  

No Sir I will not capitulate to that teaching that Christ didn't die spiritually but only physically.  No Christ died both, and as of yet have not seen any scripture to change my mind to make me repent, surely not 

To disregard this and not to seek its truth, one must deny the Trinity, cause at the cross I see all Three in their work for my salvation.

Thoughts?

Respectfully:  James in Oregon 

 

     

Comments

Popular posts from this blog

Was he saved? How?

  “The heart  is  deceitful above all  things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?”J eremiah 17:9   “ He that hath clean hands, and a pure heart; who hath not lifted up his soul unto vanity, nor sworn deceitfully.” Psalm 24:4   All scripture references are taken from the Authorized (King James) Versions unless other wise noted. There was a man who once lived alone, he was what is often called a hermit a vagabond.   He had never been told of God, Jesus or the gospel as given from the Bible. He knew in his heart, that there was something, something outside himself, something was needed to make himself complete.   Several years previously while scrounging and looking for anything useful he discovered a Bible.   He put it away, safely where he lived and forgot about it.   Some years later there was a harsh winter storm, frozen deep snow had completely shut him in.   Although secure in his abode and safe from the destructive winter he would survive.   He had no electricit

Concluding then?

 I  have been doing these on this platform for now on 4 years.  Before I used other platforms since 2010 or thereabouts.  I have never had one question and only one comment in all those years.  I did have one correction when one reader observed that I had referenced 1 Corinthians when actually I should have used 2 Corinthians, that was about six or seven years ago.    I now place my thoughts and understandings on Facebook  In His service;   James Brown    

Why the "authorized" KJV?

"Wherefore art thou  red in thine apparel, and thy garments like him that treadeth in the winefat."  Isaiah 63:2 [in context read 63:1-6]  " A certain man planted a vineyard, and set a hedge about it , and digged a place for the winefat,"  Mark 12:1b and c.   While listening to a recent TV minister I observed what I thought at the time a miss-spelling in the text of the Bible I currently use, in which I have found several.  It's a King James Version "Authorized", and have often wondered what's the difference between the given as "authorized" and the other not.   After some research and consideration, I saw this.  Thinking it was a textural error I checked several other KJV authorized and non-authorized finding they all used the word winevat.  But the authorized used both "vat" and "fat".  So why the disparity in the spelling and only used in those two places in scripture? To me, it was getting interesting.  I have lear